Knicks4lyfe
Starter
Just because it says he creates a new heavens and earth, still does not that he In fact, I will address it as such in the next subject.I'll answer each argument.
First argument...Lets first discuss the destruction of the old earth and universe to make a new one.
Isiah 65:17 "I create new heavens and a new earth and the form of things that shall not be remebered or come to mind."
Isiah 66:22 "For just as the new heavens and the new earth which I make will endure before me," declares the Lord.
To be correct, the explanation of these verses must agree with the context and with the rest of the BiblePeter sums it up quite nicely...you'll read that in a second.
The purpose of this to happen (the destruction) is because evil will be so bad that he will have to come and when he arrives on the Mount of Olive in Israel, the mountain will split and from that point the entire earth and heaven will be cleansed of evil and sin and as the Bible says an evil and adultrous world. A world of sin.
Let's see destory and destruction: 2nd Peter 3:7 "But the present heavens and earth by His word are being reserved for fire, kept for the day of judgement, and destruction of ungodly men"
In 2nd Peter chapter 3 verse 10; "But the day of the Lord will come like a theaf, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the Earth and it's works will be burned up.
Also in 2nd Peter, FYI, he answers your entire argument Knick4lyfe.
After verse 10, 2nd Peter 3:11-13 says "Since everything will be destroyed in this way, what kind of people ought you to be? You ought to live holy and godly lives." 12 then says "as you look forward to the day of God and speed it's coming. That day will bring about the destruction of the heavens by fire, and the elements will melt in heat." Then 13 says: "But keeping with his promise we are lookin forawrd to a new heaven and a new earth, the home of righteousness."
When he says "Heavens" its plural which is the Universe and it's Galaxies.
If these texts (2 Peter 3:7, 10 and Revelation 21:1) mean that the literal planet Earth is to be consumed by fire, then the literal heavens (the stars and other heavenly bodies) are also to be destroyed by fire. Such a literal view, however, conflicts with the assurance contained in such texts as Matthew 6:10-Let your kingdom come. Let your will take place, as in heaven, also upon earth.
Psalm 37:29 and 104:5 He has founded the earth upon its established places;
It will not be made to totter to time indefinite, or forever.
Proverbs 2:21 For the upright are the ones that will reside in the earth, and the blameless are the ones that will be left over in it. 22 As regards the wicked, they will be cut off from the very earth; and as for the treacherous, they will be torn away from it.
Furthermore, what effect would fire have on the already intensely hot sun and stars?
So the term "earth" in the above-quoted texts must be understood in a different sense.
At Genesis 11:1, we read - Now all the earth continued to be of one language and of one set of words.
First Kings 2:1 and 2 we read,-1 And the days of David gradually drew near for him to die; and he proceeded to command Sol?o?mon his son, saying: 2 ?I am going in the way of all the earth( he is dying like all men do ), and you must be strong and prove yourself to be a man.
First Chronicles 16:31 reads Let the heavens rejoice, and let the earth be joyful,
And let them say among the nations, ?Jehovah himself has become king!?
Psalm 96:1, etc., the term "earth" is used in a figurative sense, referring to mankind, to human society. Might that be the case at 2 Peter 3:7, 10 and Revelation 21:1?
Note that, in the context, at 2 Peter 3:5, 6 (also 2:5, 9), a parallel is drawn with the Flood of Noah?s day, in which wicked human society was destroyed, but Noah and his household, as well as the globe itself, were preserved. Likewise, at 2 Peter 3:7 it says that the ones to be destroyed are "ungodly men." The view that "the earth" here refers to wicked human society fully agrees with the rest of the Bible, as is illustrated by the texts cited above. It is that symbolic "earth," or wicked human society, that is "discovered"; that is, Jehovah will sear away as by fire all disguise, exposing the wickedness of ungodly human society and showing it to be worthy of complete destruction. That wicked society of humans is also "the first earth," referred to at Revelation 21:1 (KJ).Psalm 37:29 and 104:5 He has founded the earth upon its established places;
It will not be made to totter to time indefinite, or forever.
Proverbs 2:21 For the upright are the ones that will reside in the earth, and the blameless are the ones that will be left over in it. 22 As regards the wicked, they will be cut off from the very earth; and as for the treacherous, they will be torn away from it.
Furthermore, what effect would fire have on the already intensely hot sun and stars?
So the term "earth" in the above-quoted texts must be understood in a different sense.
At Genesis 11:1, we read - Now all the earth continued to be of one language and of one set of words.
First Kings 2:1 and 2 we read,-1 And the days of David gradually drew near for him to die; and he proceeded to command Sol?o?mon his son, saying: 2 ?I am going in the way of all the earth( he is dying like all men do ), and you must be strong and prove yourself to be a man.
First Chronicles 16:31 reads Let the heavens rejoice, and let the earth be joyful,
And let them say among the nations, ?Jehovah himself has become king!?
Psalm 96:1, etc., the term "earth" is used in a figurative sense, referring to mankind, to human society. Might that be the case at 2 Peter 3:7, 10 and Revelation 21:1?
3rd argument...the word RAPTURE not in the Bible...the event is still mentioned and will happen.
This arguement was answered by doctors/scholars, H.L Willmington, Valvoord and Dwight Penticost when the same question was asked to them in a letter one day. They said "In answering this letter I agreed that he was indeed correct, inasmuch as the word rapture is nowhere to be found among the 774,747 words in the King James Version of the Bible. But I then pointed out that neither are the words Trinity, demon, Bible, or grandfather mentioned in that version of the Word of God. But there is a Trinity, there are demons, grandfathers do exist, and the rapture is a reality! Actually the word rapture is from rapere, found in the expression "caught up" in the Latin translation of 1 Thessalonians 4:17. However, if on so desires, the rapture could be scripturally referred to as the harpazo, which is the Greek word translated "caught up" in 1 Thessalonians 4:1. The identical phrase found in Acts 8:39, where Phillip was caught away by the Holy Spirit, and in 2 Corinthians 12:2,4, when Paul was caught up into the third heaven. Or, if you'd rather, the rapture could be known as the allasso, from the Greek translated "changed" in 1 Corinthians 15:51,52. Allasso is also used in describing the final renewal and transofrmation of the heavens and the earth(see Hebrews 1:12). So then, use whatever name suits your fancy. Ofcourse, the important thing is not what you name it, but rather, can you claim it? That is, will you participate in it? Thus, the next scheduled event predicted in the Bible will take place when the Savior himself appears in the air to catch up His own!".
When
the apostle Paul said that Christians would be "caught up" to be with the Lord, what subject was being discussed?
1 Thess. 4:13-18, RS: "We would not have you ignorant, brethren, concerning those who are asleep ["those who sleep in death," NE; "those who have died," TEV, JB], that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope. For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so, through Jesus, God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep. For this we declare to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, shall not precede those who have fallen asleep. For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the archangel?s call, and with the sound of the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first; then we who are alive, who are left, shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and so we shall always be with the Lord. Therefore comfort one another with these words."
(Evidently some members of the Christian congregation in Thessalonica had died. Paul encouraged the survivors to comfort one another with the resurrection hope. He reminded them that Jesus was resurrected after his death; so, too, at the coming of the Lord, those faithful Christians among them who had died would be raised to be with Christ.)
(Evidently some members of the Christian congregation in Thessalonica had died. Paul encouraged the survivors to comfort one another with the resurrection hope. He reminded them that Jesus was resurrected after his death; so, too, at the coming of the Lord, those faithful Christians among them who had died would be raised to be with Christ.)
Who
are the ones that will be ?caught up in the clouds,? as stated at 1 Thessalonians 4:17?
Verse 15 explains that they are faithful ones "who are left until the coming of the Lord," that is, they are still living at the time of Christ?s coming. Will they ever die? According to Romans 6:3-5 and 1 Corinthians 15:35, 36, 44 they must die before they can gain heavenly life. But there is no need for them to remain in the death state awaiting Christ?s return. They will instantly be "caught up," "in the twinkling of an eye," to be with the Lord.?1 Cor. 15:51, 52, RS; also Revelation 14:13.
Will
Christ appear visibly on a cloud and then take away faithful Christians into the heavens while the world looks on?
Did
Jesus say whether the world would see him again with their physical eyes?
John 14:19, RS: "Yet a little while, and the world will see me no more, but you [his faithful disciples] will see me; because I live, you will live also."(Compare 1 Timothy 6:16.)
What
is the meaning of the Lord?s ?descending from heaven??
Could the Lord "descend from heaven," as stated at 1 Thessalonians 4:16, without being visible to physical eyes? In the days of ancient Sodom and Gomorrah, Jehovah said that he was going to "go down to see" what the people were doing. (Gen. 18:21,) But when Jehovah made that inspection, no human saw him, although they did see the angelic representatives that he sent. (John 1:18) Similarly, without having to return in the flesh, Jesus could turn his attention to his faithful followers on earth to reward them.
In
what sense, then, will humans "see" the Lord "coming in a cloud"?
Jesus foretold: "Then they will see the Son of man [Jesus Christ] coming in a cloud with power and great glory." (Luke 21:27, RS) In no way does this statement or similar ones in other texts contradict what Jesus said as recorded at John 14:19. Consider: At Mount Sinai, what occurred when God ?came to the people in a thick cloud,? as stated at Exodus 19:9? (RS) God was invisibly present; the people of Israel saw visible evidence of his presence, but none of them actually saw God with their eyes. So, too, when Jesus said that he would come "in a cloud," he must have meant that he would be invisible to human eyes but that humans would be aware of his presence. They would "see" him with their mental eyes, discerning the fact that he was present. THAT IS THE SOLE REASON HIS DISCIPLES ASKED WHAT THE SIGN OF HIS PRESENCE WOULD BE, BECAUSE THEY KNEW THEY WOULD NOT LITERALLY SEE HIM WITH THEIR PHYSICAL EYES[/quote]